- ...
likely
^{1} - Something similar,
also independently from Bayes,
was done by Laplace in 1774 (see Stephen Stigler's
`The History of Statistics'). However Gauss does not mention
Laplace for this result in his 1809 book (while, instead,
he acknowledges him for the integral to normalize the Gaussian!).
Therefore the `Fermi's Bayes Theorem' should be, more properly,
a kind of `Laplace-Gauss Theorem'.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .